The accepted questions are assembled into a test in accordance with the content specifications developed by the committee to ensure adequate coverage of the various aspects of the field and, at the same time, to prevent overemphasis on any single topic. The entire test is then reviewed and approved by the committee. Subject-matter and measurement specialists on the ETS staff assist the committee, providing information and advice about methods of test construction and helping to prepare the questions and assemble the test.
In addition, each test question is reviewed to eliminate language, symbols, or content considered potentially offensive, inappropriate for major subgroups of the test-taking population, or likely to perpetuate any negative attitude that may be conveyed to these sub-groups. The test as a whole is also reviewed to ensure that the test questions, where applicable, include an appropriate balance of people in different groups and different roles. Because of the diversity of undergraduate curricula, it is not possible for a single test to cover all the material you may have studied.
The examiners, there-fore, select questions that test the basic knowledge and skills most important for successful graduate study in the particular field. The committee keeps the test up-to-date by regularly developing new editions and revising existing editions. In this way, the test content changes steadily but gradually, much like most cur-ricula. These analyses may reveal that a question is ambiguous, requires knowledge beyond the scope of the test, or is inappro-priate for the total group or a particular subgroup of examinees taking the test.
Answers to such questions are not used in computing scores. Following this analysis, the new test edition is equated to an existing test edition.
In the equating process, statistical methods are used to assess the difficulty of the new test. Then scores are adjusted so that examinees who took a difficult edition of the test are not penalized, and examinees who took an easier edition of the test do not have an advantage. Varia-tions in the number of questions in the different editions of the test are also taken into account in this process.
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Scores on the Subject Tests are reported as three-digit scaled scores with the third digit always zero. The maximum possible range for all Subject Test total scores is from to The actual range of scores for a particular Subject Test, however, may be smaller. The maximum possible range of Subject Test subscores is 20 to 99; however, the actual range of subscores for any test or test edition may be smaller than 20 to Content of the Chemistry Test The test consists of about multiple-choice ques-tions. A periodic table is printed in the test booklet as well as a table of information see page 10 presenting various physical constants and a few conversion factors among SI units.
Whenever necessary, additional values of physical constants are printed with the text of the question. Test questions are constructed to simplify mathematical manipulations. As a result, neither calculators nor tables of logarithms are needed. If the solution to a problem requires the use of logarithms, the necessary values are included with the question. The content of the test emphasizes the four fields into which chemistry has been traditionally divided and some interrelationships among the fields. Because of these interrelationships, individual questions may test more than one field of chemistry.
Some examinees may associate a particular question with one field, whereas other examinees may have encountered the same material in a different field. For example, the knowledge necessary to answer some questions classi-fied as testing organic chemistry may well have been acquired in analytical chemistry courses by some examinees. Consequently, the emphases of the four fields indicated in the following outline of material covered by the test should not be considered definitive.
Solutions and Standardization — Concentration terms, primary standards C. Homogeneous Equilibria — Acid-base, oxidation-reduction, complexometry D. Heterogeneous Equilibria — Gravimetric analysis, solubility, precipitation titrations, chemical separations E. Instrumental Methods — Electrochemical methods, spectroscopic methods, chromatographic methods, thermal methods, calibration of instruments 5. Environmental Applications G.
General Chemistry — Periodic trends, oxidation states, nuclear chemistry B. Covalent Molecular Substances — Lewis diagrams, molecular point groups, VSEPR concept, valence bond description and hybridization, molecular orbital description, bond energies, covalent and van der Waals radii of the elements, intermolecular forces D. Metals and Semiconductors — Structure, band theory, physical and chemical consequences of band theory E. Chemistry of the Main Group Elements — Electronic structures, occurrences and recovery, physical and chemical properties of the elements and their compounds G.
Chemistry of the Transition Elements — Electronic structures, occurrences and recovery, physical and chemical properties of the elements and their compounds, coor-dination chemistry H. Special Topics — Organometallic chemistry, catalysis, bioinorganic chemistry, applied solid-state chemistry, environmental chemistry III. Functional Groups — Preparation, reactions, and interconversions of alkanes, alkenes, alkynes, dienes, alkyl halides, alcohols, ethers, epoxides, sulfides, thiols, aromatic compounds, aldehydes, ketones, carboxylic acids and their derivatives, amines C.
Reaction Mechanisms — Nucleophilic displacements and addition, nucleophilic aromatic substitution, electrophilic additions, electrophilic aromatic substitutions, eliminations, Diels-Alder and other cycloadditions D. Reactive Intermediates — Chemistry and nature of carbocations, carbanions, free radicals, carbenes, benzynes, enols E. Organometallics — Preparation and reactions of Grignard and organolithium reagents, lithium organocuprates, and other modern main group and transition metal reagents and catalysts F.
Special Topics — Resonance, molecular orbital theory, catalysis, acid-base theory, carbon acidity, aromaticity, antiaromaticity, macromolecules, lipids, amino acids, pep-tides, carbohydrates, nucleic acids, terpenes, asymmetric synthesis, orbital symmetry, polymers IV. Thermodynamics — First, second, and third laws, thermochemistry, ideal and real gases and solutions, Gibbs and Helmholtz energy, chemical potential, chemical equilibria, phase equilibria, colligative properties, statistical thermodynamics B.
Quantum Chemistry and Applications to Spectroscopy — Classical experiments, principles of quantum mechanics, atomic and molecular structure, molec-ular spectroscopy C. Dynamics — Experimental and theoretical chemical kinetics, solution and liquid dynamics, photochemistry 6. Preparing for a Subject Test GRE Subject Test questions are designed to measure skills and knowledge gained over a long period of time.
Although you might increase your scores to some extent through preparation a few weeks or months before you take the test, last-minute cramming is unlikely to be of further help. A general review of your college courses is probably the best preparation for the test. How-ever, the test covers a broad range of subject matter, and no one is expected to be familiar with the content of every question.
Use this practice book to become familiar with the types of questions in the GRE Chemistry Test, paying special attention to the directions. If you thoroughly understand the directions before you take the test, you will have more time during the test to focus on the questions themselves. Test-Taking Strategies The questions in the practice test in this book illus-trate the types of multiple-choice questions in the test. When you take the test, you will mark your answers on a separate machine-scorable answer sheet.
Total testing time is two hours and fifty minutes; there are no separately timed sections. Following are some general test-taking strategies you may want to consider. Read the test directions carefully, and work as rapidly as you can without being careless. For each question, choose the best answer from the available options. All questions are of equal value; do not waste time pondering individual questions you find extremely difficult or unfamiliar. You may want to work through the test quite rapidly, first answering only the questions about which you feel confident, then going back and answering questions that require more thought, and concluding with the most difficult questions if there is time.
If you decide to change an answer, make sure you completely erase it and fill in the oval corre-sponding to your desired answer. Questions for which you mark no answer or more than one answer are not counted in scoring. As a correction for haphazard guessing, one-fourth of the number of questions you answer incorrectly is subtracted from the number of questions you answer correctly. It is improbable that mere guessing will improve your score significantly; it may even lower your score. If, however, you are not certain of the correct answer but have some knowledge of the question and are able to eliminate one or more of the answer choices, your chance of getting the right answer is improved, and it may be to your advan-tage to answer the question.
Record all answers on your answer sheet.
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Answers recorded in your test book will not be counted. Do not wait until the last five minutes of a testing session to record answers on your answer sheet. This conversion ensures that a scaled score reported for any edition of a Subject Test is comparable to the same scaled score earned on any other edition of the same test. Thus, equal scaled scores on a particular Subject Test indicate essentially equal levels of performance regardless of the test edition taken. Test scores should be compared only with other scores on the same Subject Test.
Before taking the test, you may find it useful to know approximately what raw scores would be required to obtain a certain scaled score. Several factors influ-ence the conversion of your raw score to your scaled score, such as the difficulty of the test edition and the number of test questions included in the computation of your raw score.
Based on recent editions of the Chemistry Test, the following table gives the range of raw scores associated with selected scaled scores for three different test editions. Note that when the number of scored questions for a given test is greater than the range of possible scaled scores, it is likely that two or more raw scores will convert to the same scaled score. The three test editions in the table that follows were selected to reflect varying degrees of difficulty. Examinees should note that future test editions may be somewhat more or less difficult than the test editions illustrated in the table.
For a particular test edition, there are many ways to earn the same raw score. Below are a few of the possible ways in which a scaled score of could be earned on that edition. Practice Test To become familiar with how the administration will be conducted at the test cen-ter, first remove the answer sheet pages 55 and Then go to the back cover of the test book page 50 and follow the instructions for completing the identification areas of the answer sheet.
When you are ready to begin the test, note the time and begin marking your answers on the answer sheet. B It is a red-brown volatile liquid. C It is a colorless volatile liquid. D It is a yellow metallic solid. E It is a yellow insulating solid. On the basis of oxidation-reduction potential, which of the following is most likely to occur? Cobalt is used in the radiation therapy of cancer and can be produced by bombardment of cobalt with which of the following?
Which of the following are the products of the D X-rays reaction shown above? What is the product of the reaction shown above 1. Which of the following experimental observations Which of the following types of spectroscopy is a light-scattering technique? Titration of the resulting C Raman solution requires how many mL of 0.
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E Electron paramagnetic resonance A 1. When a certain metal is irradiated with radiation C 20 mL 2. If the work function of the metal is E mL the kinetic energy in joules of the ejected The Hamiltonian operator for a particle in a one- electrons? The normal modes of a carbon dioxide molecule that are infrared-active include which of the following? Bending II. Symmetric stretching III. The product of the reaction shown above is produced via which of the following intermediates? What is the product of the reaction shown above?
Which of the following is the major product of the A reaction shown above? Which of the following procedures tend s to Which of the following is an n-type minimize the influence of random errors on semiconductor? A Silicon I. Signal averaging B Diamond II. Which of the following is lower C III only for argon than for neon? A buffer is made from equal concentrations of a C Polarizability weak acid and its conjugate base. Doubling the D Heat of vaporization volume of the buffer solution by adding water has E First ionization energy what effect on its pH?
C It significantly decreases the pH. D It changes the pH asymptotically to the I. The conditional formation constant is pKa of the acid. E It changes the pH asymptotically to the II. When EDTA reacts to form a metal The concentration A substance that is NOT generally considered to be a toxic pollutant in water is of dissolved CO2 in a vessel pressurized with 2. B When the partial pressure of M is very high, the reaction is first order overall. C When the partial pressure of M is very low, the reaction is second order overall. D When the partial pressure of M is very low, the rate is independent of the concentration of A.
E M can be any molecule capable of transferring energy to A upon collision. Which of the following methods would be best suited to measurement Which of the following best depicts the initial of trace amounts sub-ppb of CFCs in an air nucleophilic addition step in the acid-catalyzed sample? Which of the following is the hemiacetal intermediate in the reaction shown above?
What is the major product of an E2 reaction of A the compound shown above? Of the following fatty acids, which has the lowest melting point? Which of the following lists the hydrides of likely to behave as a Lewis acid? Which of the following is the major organic Which of the following starting materials could product of the reaction shown above? Which of the following procedures gives the compound shown above? Redox enzyme catalysis involves the cyclic oxidation and reduction of metal ions that have at least two stable positive oxidation states.
Which of the following groups of metals could be found at the active site of redox enzymes? The solid-state structures of the principal allotropes of elemental boron are made up of which of the following structural units? A B12 icosahedra Ionizing radiation can be detected using gas-filled B B8 cubes tubes in which released electrons migrate to a collector electrode, producing a pulse. On the C B6 octahedra figure shown above, which region would give the D B4 tetrahedra largest detector response per incident photon?
E Chains of B atoms A A Which of the following is required for both A X-ray paramagnetism and ferromagnetism? The rate constant of a bimolecular gas phase The mechanism shown above has been proposed reaction is found to follow the Arrhenius equation for the enzyme-catalyzed hydrolysis of certain shown above. Which of the following will result biochemical compounds substrates , where ES in a smaller rate constant? Given a fixed amount of enzyme, E, which of the following A Reducing activation energy could be the plot of the initial rate of the B Reducing temperature production of product, P, when using varying C Reducing pressure initial concentrations of substrate, [S] 0?
What is the total number of stereoisomers for this compound? What is the stereochemistry of the carbohydrate structure shown above? The enzyme-catalyzed transformation above, which occurs in the citric acid cycle tricarboxylic acid or Krebs cycle , is best described as belonging to which of the following categories of reactions? A peptide digest yields the three polypeptides listed above. The three peptides are separated using capillary electrophoresis at a pH above 3 at which each peptide has the same total positive Which of the following is NOT true about the charge.
Which of the following indicates the disaccharide lactose shown above?
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C Lactose is optically active. The compound shown above is a D number of excitation photons impinging on A triglyceride the sample, divided by the number of B trinucleotide photons absorbed C tripeptide E fraction of excited molecules produced by D trisaccharide direct excitation E triterpene Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
When ferric oxide, Fe2O3, is dissolved in Of the following ionic substances, which has 6 M HNO3, which iron-containing species the greatest lattice enthalpy? Which of the following reactions is best classified as an oxidative addition? Of the following colligative properties, which is most practical for determining the extent of protein aggregation?
A set of hybrid sp3 orbitals for a carbon atom is given above. Which of the following is NOT true about the orbitals? E A The orbitals are degenerate. B The set of orbitals has a tetrahedral geometry. C These orbitals are constructed from a linear Which of the following is are characteristic of combination of atomic orbitals. D The four electrons in these orbitals can form I. E Each hybrid orbital may hold four electrons. The ions are separated according to their mass-to-charge ratio. In addition to compound identification, mass spectra can be utilized to determine precise isotopic masses and isotopic ratios.
Which of the following substituents is NOT an ortho, para director in an electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction? A Which of the following is the major rearrangement product of the reaction shown B above? The reaction of terephthaloyl chloride with ethylene glycol, shown above, forms a A polyamide B polyester C polyether D polycarbonate E polyurethane Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
The proton NMR spectrum of an aromatic The fact that the infrared absorption frequency of compound, C8H8Br2, includes two methyl deuterium chloride DCl is shifted from that of hydrogen chloride HCl is due to the differences singlets. Its proton-decoupled 13C NMR in their spectrum displays a total of six peaks. Of the A electron distribution following, which structure best fits these data? B dipole moment A C force constant D polarizability E reduced mass In the vibrational-rotational spectrum of a diatomic molecule, the R-branch of the spectrum is the result of which of the following transitions?
This assumption is based on which of the following? D C The preexponential factor A in the Arrhenius equation is always positive. D The activated complex is ill defined and transitory.
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E E Forming the activated complex involves conversion of translational and rotational degrees of freedom into vibrational degrees of freedom. A student performs five titrations and obtains Which of the following statements about the a mean result of 0. If the actual concentration A The most common oxidation state for the of the titrated solution is 0. B Precise but not accurate C All of the lanthanide elements react with C Both accurate and precise aqueous acid to liberate hydrogen. D Neither accurate nor precise D The lanthanides form stable complexes with E There are insufficient data to determine chelating oxygen ligands.
E The atomic radii of the lanthanide elements increase across the period from La to Lu. The primary explanation for this large difference is termed the A Jahn-Teller effect B Tyndall effect C ammonia effect D crystal field effect E chelate effect Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. Which of the following is a true statement When the Heisenberg uncertainty principle is about optical isomerism of complexes applied to a quantum mechanical particle in the containing achiral ligands? A Square planar complexes can display optical isomerism only if all four ligands are A Momentum is known exactly, but no identical.
B Tetrahedral complexes never display optical B Position is known exactly, but no information isomerism. C Linear complexes can display optical C No information about either position or isomerism when both ligands are different. D Octahedral complexes of monodentate D Both position and momentum can be known ligands can display optical isomerism only exactly. E Trigonal bipyramidal complexes display optical isomerism when their axial ligands differ from their equatorial ligands.
An organic compound has a distribution coefficient, Kp , of 2. If A reactant, R, can produce either of two C 0. The shape of the titration curve at nm would most closely resemble which of the following? Which of the following structures represents the amino acid lysine at pH 1? Which of the following reagents can be used to convert cyclopentanol to bromocyclopentane, as shown above?
Reduction of D-xylose with NaBH4 yields a product that is a A racemic mixture B single pure enantiomer C mixture of two diastereomers in equal amounts D mixture of two diastereomers in unequal amounts E meso compound Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. The reaction sequence shown above can be used to prepare benzocaine from 4-nitrotoluene. Which of the following reaction sequences would accomplish this synthesis?
H2O, HCl 2. H2O, HCl Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. What is the limiting high-temperature molar heat capacity at constant volume CV of a gas-phase diatomic molecule? Which two of the following are the propagation steps in the free-radical chlorination of methane 3 A R shown above? The reaction energy diagram for the electrophilic bromination of benzene with Br2 and FeBr3 is shown above. Which position on the diagram corresponds to the species shown below?
Of the following atoms, which Which of the following is a primary standard for has the lowest electron affinity? Then 0 0 0 0 0 sheet. The Subject Tests are intended to measure your achievement in a specialized field of study. Most of the questions are concerned with subject matter that is probably familiar to you, but some of the questions may refer to areas that you have not studied. Your score will be determined by the number of questions you answer correctly. Questions you answer incorrectly or for which you mark no answer or more than one answer are counted as incorrect. Nothing is subtracted from a score if you answer a question incorrectly.
Therefore, to maximize your score, it is better for you to guess at an answer than not to respond at all. You are advised to use your time effectively and to work as rapidly as you can without losing accuracy.